Section 4B: Use of firearm and ammunition
This section is inserted by Act No 12 of 2023, section 19.
consolidated text (as at 2016, amended since). juris shows the text as it was consolidated; it does not confirm that this is the law in force today.
4B. Use of firearm and ammunition
(1) Subject to subsection (5), the Director-General
may provide to an officer such firearms, ammunition and other
defensive weapons as he considers necessary or desirable for
the effective discharge or the safe exercise, by the officer, of
his duties and powers, respectively.
(2) The Director-General shall, to the satisfaction
of the Commissioner of Police, make provision for a secure
place for the safekeeping of the firearms, ammunition and
other defensive weapons when not in actual use.
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(3) The Director-General shall, on the advice of the
Commissioner of Police, draw up proper procedures for the
safekeeping, issue, handling or taking over and use of firearms.
(4) The type of firearms and other defensive weapons
to be provided to an officer shall consist of such light weapon
as the Commissioner of Police may approve.
(5) No firearm, ammunition and other defensive
weapons shall be provided to an officer under subsection (1) –
(a) otherwise than for use in the discharge of
his duties and exercise of his powers;
(b) unless the officer has undergone either
appropriate training in weapon handling
or such competency test as may be
conducted by the Commissioner of Police;
(c) unless the officer holds a written
authorisation, from the Director-General,
valid for such period as the Director-General
may determine.
(b) in section 9 –
(i) by repealing subsection (1) and replacing it by the
following subsection –
(1) Subject to section 3 of the Revenue
(Temporary Protection) Act, the rate of duty, excise
duty and taxes applicable to any goods shall be that in
force in the Customs Tariff Act, the Excise Act and the
Value Added Tax Act, respectively, at the time the bill
of entry is validated at Customs.
(ii) by repealing subsection (3) and replacing it by the
following subsection –
(3) Notwithstanding subsections (1) and (2),
in the case of goods for which no bill of entry is required,
the rate of duty, excise duty and taxes applicable to
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such goods shall be that in force in the Customs Tariff
Act, the Excise Act and the Value Added Tax Act,
respectively, at the time of the delivery or removal or
export of such goods, as the case may be.
(c) in section 9A(7), by deleting the words “subsection (2)” and
replacing them by the words “subsection (2)(a)”;
(d) in section 15(5), by deleting the words “Repo rate” and
replacing them by the words” Key rate”;
(e) in section 23 –
(i) in subsection (2A), by deleting the words “Repo rate”
and replacing them by the words ”Key rate”;
(ii) in subsection (9), by deleting the words “Repo rate”
and replacing them by the words ”Key rate”;
(f) in section 24A, in subsection (1), by inserting, after the words
“regulation 20A, 22,”, the words “29,”;
(g) in section 127A, by repealing subsection (1A) and replacing it
by the following subsection –
(1A) (a) Where –
(i) the Director-General is not satisfied
with any document submitted under
subsection (1); or
(ii) the importer, exporter, agent
or broker fails to produce any
document under subsection (1) or
fails to comply with section 127B,
the Director-General may, on such information as is available
to him, claim, by notice, for the underpayment or non-payment
of duty, excise duty and taxes, together with a penalty not
exceeding 50 per cent of the amount of duty, excise duty and
taxes and interest at the rate of 0.5 per cent per month or part
of the month from the date of the original validation of the bill
of entry
exporter, agent
or broker fails to produce any
document under subsection (1) or
fails to comply with section 127B,
the Director-General may, on such information as is available
to him, claim, by notice, for the underpayment or non-payment
of duty, excise duty and taxes, together with a penalty not
exceeding 50 per cent of the amount of duty, excise duty and
taxes and interest at the rate of 0.5 per cent per month or part
of the month from the date of the original validation of the bill
of entry to the date of payment.
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(b) The amount claimed shall be paid to the
Director-General not later than 28 days from the date of the
notice.
(h) in section 132, by adding the following new subsections –
(4) Where a person refuses to undergo a search under
subsection (3), the person shall be dealt with in accordance
with subsection (5).
(5) (a) Where a Magistrate is satisfied on an
information on oath from a proper officer that a person is
reasonably suspected of having concealed any dangerous
drug inside his body, he may make an order for that person to
be submitted to –
(i) such medical examination,
including X-ray or other tests, as
may be necessary to detect the
substance; and
(ii) such medical treatment, by a
Government medical officer, as may
be considered appropriate in the
circumstances.
(b) The Government Medical Officer who
conducts any examination under paragraph (a)(i) shall
forthwith submit an official report to the Director-General
accordingly.
(c) Any person who refuses to submit to such
medical examination as may be required under paragraph (b)
shall commit an offence and shall, on conviction, be liable to
a fine not exceeding one million rupees and to imprisonment
for a term not exceeding 10 years.
(i) in section 168(3A), by deleting the words “30 June 2023” and
replacing them by the words “30 June 2024”.
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Questions this section answers
- Can a customs officer be issued a firearm to carry out their duties?
- Does a customs officer need training before being given a firearm?
- Does a customs officer need written authorisation to carry a firearm?